Section One: Listening Comprehension


1. (A) He can have more than four guests at his
graduation.
(B) His brother isn’t going to graduate this
semester.
(C) He didn’t know that Jane wanted to be
invited.
(D) He’s going to invite Jane.

2. (A) Listen to the traffic report on the radio
(B) Take a later train.
(C) Ron to catch the next train.
(D) Check the weekend schedule.

3. (A) Pelivet the notebook to Kathy.
(B) Pind out where Kathy put the notebook.
(C) Ask Kathy to explain the chemistry notes.
(D) Ask Kathy for the man’s notebook.

4. (A) The walk is shorter than the woman thinks it
is.
(B) The lecture has already started.
(C) They won’t have a problem getting seats.
(D) The lecture may be canceled.

5. (A) The woman should have studied French in
Paris.
(B) He didn’t study French in high school.
(C) Living in Paris helped improve the woman’s
language skills.
(D) The woman must have had a good French
teacher.

6. (A) Apologize to his roommate.
(B) Give the notes to the woman.
(C) Call the woman tonight.
(D) Take the woman’s notes to his roommate.

7. (A) She doesn’t have time to talk to Dr. Foster.
(B) She needs the additional time to finish her
paper.
(C) Dr. Foster hasn’t finished grading the
papers.
(D) She wants the man to help her with her
paper.

8. (A) Phone the Cliffside Inn for a reservation.
(B) Ask her parents to come a different
weekend.
(C) Call local hotels again in a few days.
(D) Find a hotel again in a few days.

9. (A) Main her some information about the
conference.
(B) Drive her to the conference.
(C) Attend the conference in her place.
(D) Collect her main while she’s at the
conference.

10. (A)The man should stop by the bookstore on
the way to class.
(B) The man can return the books he doesn’t
need.
(C) The man should have bought his books
earlier.
(D) The man won’t need books on the first day
of class.

11. (A) Help the man with his essay.
(B) Ask Sue to rehearse with her.
(C) Wait to rehearse until the man has finished
his essay.
(D) Meinerize her lines by herself.


12. (A) Show her the newspaper that he’s talking
about.
(B) Think about getting an internship at
another place.
(C) Sign up for more than one journalism class.
(D) Call The Times about the internship.

13. (A)He isn’t as good a tennis player as he used
to be.
(B) He hasn’t had time to play tennis recently.
(C) He caught a cold shortly after the
tournament.
(D) He think he’s more important than he is.

14. (A)He’ll graduate before the woman.
(B) He hopes to graduate before the summer.
(C) He doesn’t want to attend school
year-round.
(D) The woman won’t be able to keep up the
pace.

15. (A) It’s too late to buy the morning newspaper.
(B) He doesn’t want to go to the concert.
(C) The box office is closed today.
(D) All of the tickets have been sold.

16. (A) The woman swims as well as he does.
(B) He doesn’t have time to teach the woman
to swim.
(C) He doesn’t enjoy swimming.
(D) He learned to swim at a young age.

17. (A) She has already started working on her
research project.
(B) She can’t decide on a research topic.
(C) She’d like to discuss her research with the
man.
(D) She has to change the subject of her
research.

18. (A) Introduce the woman to his neighbor.
(B) Get a key from his neighbor.
(C) Study in his neighbor’s apartment.
(D) Borrow some books from his neighbor.

19. (A) The man shouldn’t hire the same tutor that
she had.
(B) She isn’t prepared for the midterm exam
either.
(C) It’s too late to find a tutor.
(D) The man should hire a tutor before the
midterm exam

20. (A) Stay in the hotel for at least two nights.
(B) Leave the hotel the next morning.
(C) Ask the hotel clerk for her room key.
(D) Complain to the manager about the extra
charges.

21. (A) He doesn’t recommend going to Central
Mountain.
(B) He doesn’t plan to go skiing during spring
break.
(C) He has never been to Central Mountain.
(D) He isn’t an experienced skier.

22. (A) She knows who the top history student is.
(B) She hasn’t read the campus newspaper
today.
(C) The man is mistaken.
(D) It’s surprising that her roommate likes
history.

23. (A) He’s not qualified to proofread the
woman’s report.
(B) He’ll be able to talk to the woman in a few
minutes.
(C) He hadn’t noticed a lot of the woman’s
mistakes.
(D) He thinks the woman should have asked
him sooner.

24. (A) Practice her presentation in front of him.
(B) Find out who her audience will be
tomorrow.
(C) Try not to think about her audience.
(D) Watch him make his presentation.

25. (A) She’s also curious about who won the
game.
(B) She didn’t go to the game.
(C) She was sitting right behind the man at the
game.
(D) She also left the game early.

26. (A) Make a shopping list.
(B) Buy some groceries.
(C) Finish making the salad.
(D) Wait for the woman to return.

27. (A) He finds the dictionary very useful.
(B) He knows where the woman put the
dictionary.
(C) he doesn’t expect the woman to replace the
dictionary.
(D) The woman should buy her own dictionary.

28. (A) She plans to miss soccer practice.
(B) She’ll arrive at the party after
(C) Soccer practice will end later than usual.
(D) She’ll go to soccer practice after the party.

29. (A) Dr. Smith told her something important.
(B) Dr. Smith didn’t understand what she said.
(C) She wanted to protect Dr. Smith’s feelings.
(D) She didn’t intend to say what she said.

30. (A) He sells paint supplies.
(B) He plans to take an art class with the
woman.
(C) He works as an artist.
(D)He works in an art museum.

31. (A) The cost of meals in the cafeteria.
(B) The size of the cafeteria.
(C) Career opportunities in cafeterias.
(D) The food served in the cafeteria.
32. (A) Giving advice on nutrition.
(B) Cooking food for the students.
(C) Listening to complaints about service.
(D) Serving food to the students.

33. (A) Find other students who will work in the
cafeteria.
(B) Collect students’ opinions about meals.
(C) As students to try a new dish he has made.
(D) Teach students about the disadvantages of
frying food.

34. (A) Stop serving hamburgers and fried
chicken.
(B) Use less sauce on the food.
(C) Make some of the meals less fattening.
(D) Buy less expensive food.

35. (A) Somewhat curious.
(B) Very skeptical.
(C) Quite irritated.
(D) Not at all interested.

36. (A) That he’ll be performing in a concert.
(B) That he had a conversation with the
director of a choir.
(C) That he heard a new musical composition
by Barbara Johnson.
(D) That he’s been translating some Latin
poems for a class.

37. (A) They’re members of the Latin club on
campus.
(B) They work as editors.
(C) They attended the same concert.
(D) Music is their major field of study.

38. (A) She was upset.
(B) She was confused.
(C) She was amused.
(D) She was grateful.
39. (A) Some photographs that he took of her
during the concert.
(B) A tape recording that he made of the
concert.
(C) A review of the concert that he wrote for
the campus paper.
(D) The corrected text from the program of the
concert.

40. (A) The skills cowboys learned on the range.
(B) The evolution of rodeos.
(C) The recent decline in the popularity of
rodeos.
(D) The growth of the cattle industry.

41. (A) They were small informal events.
(B) Competitors were awarded large prizes.
(C) Large audiences attended them.
(D) There were standard rules for judging
events.

42. (A) It is the only traveling rodeo.
(B) it is the largest agricultural fair.
(C) It is the oldest annual rodeo.
(D) It was the first rodeo to charge admission.

43. (A) How animals react to frightening
situations.
(B) Why mice are particularly fearful animals.
(C) Whether fearfulness is a genetic trait.
(D) Why certain animals are feared by humans.

44. (A) They fought with the other mice.
(B) They stayed close to their mothers.
(C) They ran back and forth constantly.
(D) They remained close to one wall.

45. (A) The extent of damage to the nervous
system.
(B) The presence or absence of certain
nerve-cell receptors.
(C) The size of nerve-cell receptors in the
brain.
(D) The level of danger in the mammal’s
environment.

46. (A) To show the relationship between
fearfulness and environment.
(B) To give examples of animals that aren’t
fearful.
(C) To compare fear in mammals to fear in
other animals.
(D) To identify the nerves that control fear in
certain animals.

47. (A) Why water flows from artesian springs.
(B) How artesian wells are drilled.
(C) Why artesian springs are important to
geologic research.
(D) How aquifers are formed.

48. (A)They pump water from the aquifer.
(B) They purify the water in the aquifer.
(C) They store excess water from the aquifer.
(D) They trap water in the aquifer.

49. (A)By eroding layers of sediment above it.
(B) By traveling through cracks in layers of
rock.
(C) By reversing its flow down the aquicludes.
(D) By boiling up through pores in the aquifer.

50. (A) It pushes the water upward.
(B) It keeps the water cool.
(C) It holds the water underground.
(D) It creates holes in the aquiclude.







Section Two: Structure and Written Expression


1. A three-foot octopus can crawl through a hole
------ in diameter.
(A) than one inch less
(B) less than one inch
(C) one less inch than
(D) tan less one inch

2. ------adopted the decimal system of coinage in
1867.
(A) Canada
(B) When Canada
(C) Canada, which
(D) There was Canada

3. Generally, the representatives ------ a legislature
are constitutionally elected by a broad spectrum
of the population.
(A) who they compose
(B) who compose
(C) ad compose
(D) compose

4. The Actor’s Studio, a professional actors’
workshop in New York City, provides
------where actors can work together without the
pressure of commercial production.
(A) a place and
(B) a place
(C) so that a place
(D) a place is

5. ------ that life began billions of years ago in the
water.
(A) It is believed
(B) In the belief
(C) The belief
(D) Believing

6. by 1872 the United States had 70 engineering
colleges, ------ astonishing expansion credited
largely to the Morrill Act of 1862.
(A) because
(B) an
(C) to which
(D) was

7. The artist Romare Bcarden was ------ whose
yellows, deep blues, and fuchsias contrasted
strongly with photographic gray in his bright
collages.
(A) with a gift for color
(B) a gifted colorist
(C) a gift with colorful
(D) gifted with coloring

8. The most important chemical catalyst on this
planet is chlorophyll, -------carbon dioxide and water react to form carbohydrates.
(A) whose presence
(B) which is present
(C) presenting
(D) in the presence of which

9. One theory of the origin of the universe is
-------from the explosion of a tiny, extremely
dense fireball several billion years ago.
(A) because what formed
(B) the formation that
(C) that it formed
(D) when forming

10. Roads in the United States remained crude,
------- with graved or wood planks, until the
beginning of the twentieth century.
(A) were unsurefaced or they covered them
(B) which unsureface or covered
(C) unsurfaced or covered them
(D) unsurfaced or covered
11. portrait prints were the first reproductions of
American paintings ------- widely distributed in
the United States.
(A) were
(B) that which
(C) that being
(D) to be

12. Abigail Adams was prodigious letter writer,
------- many editions of her letters have been
published.
(A) who
(B) and
(C) in addition to
(D) due to

13. In geometry, an ellipse may be defined as
the locus of all points -------distances from
two fixed points is constant.
(A) which as the sum of
(B) of the sum which
(C) whose sum of whose
(D) whose sum that the


14. -------at the site of a fort establis hed by the
Northwest Mounted Police, Calgary is now one
of Canada’s fastest growing cities.
(A) Built
(B) It is built
(C) To build
(D) Having built

15. An image on a national flag can symbolize
political ideals that -------express.
(A) take many words to otherwise would.
(B) would take to many otherwise words
(C) many words to take would otherwise
(D) would otherwise take many words to











16. A variation of collodion photography was the tintype, which captured images on a black or dark
A B C
brown metal plate instead from on glass.
D
17. In cases of minor injury to the brain. Amnesia is likely to be a temporarily condition.
A B C D
18. The system of chemical symbols, first devised about 1800. gives a concise and instantly recognizable
A B
description of a element or compound.
C D
19. The fact that white light is light composed of various wavelengths may be demonstrating by
A B C
dispersing a beam of such light through a prism.
D
20. Over the course of history, much civilizations developed their own number systems.
A B C D
21. In the United States during the Second World War, each trade unions and employers avoided federal
A B
limits on wages by offering employees nontaxable medical benefits.
C D
22. Philosophy is the study of the nature of reality, knowledge, existent, and ethics by means of rational
A B C D
inquiry.
23. Poems vary in length from brief lyric poems to narrative or epic poems, which can be as broad in
A B C
scope than a novel.
D
24. The population of California more than doubled during the period 1940-1960, creating problems in
A B
road-building and provide water for its arid southern section.
C D
25. Although based it on feudal models, the colony of Pennsylvania developed a reputation for a
A B C
progressive political and social outlook.
D
26. Hard and resistant to corrosion, bronze is traditionally used in bell casting and is the material used
A B
widely most for metal sculpture.
C D
27. The Appalachian Mountains formation a natural barrier between the eastern seaboard and the vast
A B
lowlands of the continental interior of North America.
C D
28. The United States census for 1970 showed that the French-speaking residents of Louisiana were one
A B C
of the country’s most compact regional linguistic minority.
D
29. When used as food additives, antioxidants prevent fats and oils from become rancid when exposed
A B C
to air, and thus extend their shelf life.
D
31. Copper was the first metallic used by humans and is second only to iron in its utility through
A B C
the ages.
D
32. Despite the fact that lemurs are general nocturnal, the ring-tailed lemur travels by day in bands of
A B C
four to twelve individuals.
D
33. The Western world is beset with the range of problem that characterize mature, postindustrial
A B C
societies.
D
34. Acrylic paints are either applied using a knife or diluted and spreading with a paintbrush.
A B C D
35. Some marine invertebrates, such as the sea urchin and the starfish, migrates from deep water to
A B
shallow during spring and early summer to spawn.
C D
36. Marshes, wetland areas characterized by plant grassy growth, are distinguished from swamps,
A B C
wetlands where trees grown.
D
37. Wampum, beads used as a form of exchange by some Native Americans, was made of bits of
A B C
seashells cut, drill, and strung into belts.
C
38. Kangaroos use their long and powerful tails for balance themselves when sitting upright or
A B C D
jumping.
39. Proper city planning provides for the distribution of public utilities, public buildings, parks, and
A B
recreation centers, and for adequate and the inexpensive housing.
C D
40. Most traditional dances are made up of a prearranged series of steps and movements, but modern
A B
dancers are generally free to move as they choice.
C D

Section Three: Reading Comprehension
Questions 1-9
In 1972, a century after the first national park in the United States was established at
Yellowstone, legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program.
The intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar
To that existing for land areas designated as national parks. The designation of an areas
5) a marine sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is. People
are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their environments may
not be harmed or removed.
The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic
and Atmospheric Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce.
10) Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. Two and a half decades
later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after
1978. They range in size from the very small (less than I square kilometer) Fagatele Bay
National Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine
Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers.
15) The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management
practices in which whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are
offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and overexploitation. Only
in this way can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting
that also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist among these species.
20) Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other
countries. The National Estuarine Research Reserve System, managed by the United
States government, includes 23 designated and protected estuaries. Outside the United
States, marine protected-area programs exist as marine parks, reserves, and preserves.
Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Carbbean Sea. Others range
25) from the well-known Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks
in countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures
on fragile coral reef systems. As state, national, and international agencies come to
recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas.
whether as sanctuaries, parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important
role in preserving that diversity.


1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) Differences among marine parks,
sanctuaries, and reserves
(B) Various marine conservation programs
(C) International agreements on coastal
protection
(D) Similarities between land and sea protected
environments

2. The word “intent” in line 3 is closest in meaning
to
(A) repetition
(B) approval
(C) goal
(D) revision
3. The word “administered” in line 8 is closest in
meaning to
(A) managed
(B) recognized
(C) opposed
(D) justified

4. The word “these” in line 11 refers to
(A) sites
(B) candidates
(C) decades
(D) sanctuaries

5. The passage mentions the Monterey Bay
National Marine Sanctuary (lines 13-14) as an
example of a sanctuary that
(A) is not well know
(B) covers a large area
(C) is smaller than the Fagatele Bay National
Marine Sanctuary
(D) was not originally proposed for sanctuary
status

6. According to the passage, when was the
National Marine Sanctuaries Program
established?
(A) Before 1972
(B) After 1987
(C) One hundred years before national parks
were established
(D) One hundred years after Yellowstone
National Park was established
7. According to the passage, all of the following
are achievements of the National Marine
Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT
(A) the discovery of several new marine
organisms
(B) the preservation of connections between
individual marine species
(C) the protection of coastal habitats
(D) the establishment of areas where the public
can observe marine life

8. The word “periphery” in line 24 is closest in
meaning to
(A) depth
(B) landmass
(C) warm habitat
(D) outer edge

9. The passage mentions which of the following as
a threat to marine areas outside the United
States?
(A) Limitations in financial support
(B) The use of marine species as food
(C) Variability of the climate
(D) Increases in tourism









Questions 10-17
From their inception, most rural neighborhoods in colonial North America included
at least one carpenter, joiner, sawyer, and cooper in woodworking; a weaver and a tailor
for clothing production; a tanner, currier, and cordwainer (shoemaker) for fabricating leather
objects; and a blacksmith for metalwork, Where stone was the local building material, a
5) mason was sure to appear on the list of people who paid taxes. With only an apprentice as
an assistant, the rural artisan provided the neighborhood with common goods from furniture
to shoes to farm equipment in exchange for cash or for “goods in kind” from the customer’s
field, pasture, or dairy. Sometimes artisans transformed material provided by the customer
wove cloth of yam spun at the farm from the wool of the family sheep; made chairs or tables
10) from wood cut in the customer’s own woodlot; produced shoes or leather breeches from
cow, deer, or sheepskin tanned on the farm.
Like their farming neighbors, rural artisans were part of an economy seen, by one
historian, as “an orchestra conducted by nature.” Some tasks could not be done in the winter,
other had to be put off during harvest time, and still others waited on raw materials that were
15) only produced seasonally. As the days grew shorter, shop hours kept pace, since few artisans
could afford enough artificial light to continue work when the Sun went down. To the best
of their ability, colonial artisans tried to keep their shops as efficient as possible and to
regularize their schedules and methods of production for the best return on their investment
in time, tools, and materials, While it is pleasant to imagine a woodworker, for example,
20) carefully matching lumber, joining a chest together without resort to nails or glue, and
applying all thought and energy to carving beautiful designs on the finished piece, the time
required was not justified unless the customer was willing to pay extra for the quality—
and few in rural areas were, Artisans, therefore, often found it necessary to employ as
many shortcuts and economics as possible while still producing satisfactory products.

10. What aspect of rural colonial North America
does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) Farming practices
(B) The work of artisans
(C) The character of rural neighborhoods
(D) Types of furniture that were popular

11. The word “inception” in line 1 is closest in
meaning to
(A) investigation
(B) location
(C) beginning
(D) records

12. The word “fabricating” in line 3 is closest in
meaning to
(A) constructing
(B) altering
(C) selecting
(D) demonstrating

13. It can be inferied from the from the passage
that the use of artificial light in colonial times
was
(A) especially helpful to woodworkers
(B) popular in rural areas
(C) continuous in winter
(D) expensive

14. Why did colonial artisans want to “regularize
their schedules their schedules” (line 18)?
(A) To enable them to produce high quality
products
(B) To enable them to duplicate an item many
times
(C) To impress their customers
(D) To keep expenses low

15. The phrase “resort to” in line 20 is closest in
meaning to
(A) protecting with
(B) moving toward
(C) manufacturing
(D) using

16. The word “few’ in lines 23 refers to
(A) woodworkers
(B) finished pieces
(C) customers
(D) chests

17. It can inferred that the artisans referred to in
the passage usually produced products that
were
(A) simple
(B) delicate
(C) beautifully decorated
(D) exceptionally long-lasting














Questions 18-28
Cities develop as a result of functions that they can perform. Some functions result
directly from the ingenuity of the citizenry, but most functions result from the needs of
the local area and of the surrounding hinterland (the region that supplies goods to the
city and to which the city furnishes services and other goods). Geographers often make
5) a distinction between the situation and the site of a city. Situation refers to the general
position in relation to the surrounding region, whereas site involves physical
characteristics of the specific location. Situation is normally much more important to
the continuing prosperity of a city. if a city is well situated in regard to its hinterland, its
development is much more likely to continue. Chicago, for example, possesses an almost
10) unparalleled situation: it is located at the southern end of a huge lake that forces east-west
transportation lines to be compressed into its vicinity, and at a meeting of significant land
and water transport routes. It also overlooks what is one of the world’s finest large
farming regions. These factors ensured that Chicago would become a great city regardless
of the disadvantageous characteristics of the available site, such as being prone to flooding
15) during thunderstorm activity.
Similarly, it can be argued that much of New York City’s importance stems from its
early and continuing advantage of situation. Philadephia and Boston both originated at
about the same time as New York and shared New York’s location at the western end of
one of the world’s most important oceanic trade routes, but only New York possesses an
20) easy-access functional connection (the Hudson-Mohawk lowland) to the vast Midwestern
hinterland. This account does not alone explain New York’s primacy, but it does include
several important factors. Among the many aspects of situation that help to explain why
some cities grow and others do not, original location on a navigable waterway seems
particularly applicable. Of course, such characteristic as slope, drainage, power
25) resources, river crossings, coastal shapes, and other physical characteristics help to
determine city location, but such factors are normally more significant in early stages
of city development than later.

18. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The development of trade routes through
United States cities
(B) Contrasts in settlement patterns in United
States
(C) Historical differences among three large
United States cities
(D) The importance of geographical situation
in the growth of United States cities

19. The word “ingenuity” in line 2. is closest in
meaning to
(A) wealth
(B) resourcefulness
(C) traditions
(D) organization

20. The passage suggests that a geographer would
consider a city’s soil type part of its
(A) hinterland
(B) situation
(C) site
(D) function

21. According to the passage, a city’s situation is
more important than its site in regard to the
city’s.
(A) long-term growth and prosperity
(B) ability to protect its citizenry
(C) possession of favorable weather conditions
(D) need to import food supplies

22. The author mentions each of the following as
an advantage of Chicago’s location EXCEPT
its.
(A) hinterland
(B) nearness to a large lake
(C) position in regard to transport routes
(D) flat terrain

23. The word “characteristics” in line 14 is closest
in meaning to
(A) choices
(B) attitudes
(C) qualities
(D) inhabitants

24. The primary purpose of paragraph 1 is to
(A) summarize past research and introduce
anew study
(B) describe a historical period
(C) emphasize the advantages of one theory
over another
(D) define a term and illustrate it with an
example

25. According to the passage, Philadelphia and
Boston are similar to New York City in
(A) size of population
(B) age
(C) site
(D) availability of rail transportation

26. The word “functional” in line 20 is closest in
meaning to
(A) alternate
(B) unknown
(C) original
(D) usable

27. The word “it” in line 21 refers to
(A) account
(B) primacy
(C) connection
(D) hinterland

28. The word “significant” in line 26 is closest in
meaning to
(A) threatening
(B) meaningful
(C) obvious
(D) available

Questions 29-10
The largest of the giant gas planets, Jupiter, with a volume 1,300 times greater than
Earth’s, contains more than twice the mass of all the other planets combined. It is thought
to be a gaseous and fluid planet without solid surfaces, Had it been somewhat more massive,
Jupiter might have attained internal temperatures as high as the ignition point for nuclear
5) reactions, and it would have flamed as a star in its own right. Jupiter and the other giant
planets are of a low-density type quite distinct from the terrestrial planets: they are
composed predominantly of such substances as hydrogen, helium, ammonia, and methane,
unlike terrestrial planets. Much of Jupiter’s interior might be in the form of liquid, metallic
hydrogen, Normally, hydrogen is a gas, but under pressures of millions of kilograms per
10) square centimeter, which exist in the deep interior of Jupiter, the hydrogen atoms might
lock together to form a liquid with the properties of a metal. Some scientists believe that
the innermost core of Jupiter might be rocky, or metallic like the core of Earth.
Jupiter rotates very fast, once every 9.8 hours. As a result, its clouds, which are composed
largely of frozen and liquid ammonia, have been whipped into alternating dark and bright
15) bands that circle the planet at different speeds in different latitudes. Jupiter’s puzzling
Great Red Spot changes size as it hovers in the Southern Hemisphere. Scientists speculate
it might be a gigantic hurricane, which because of its large size (the Earth could easily fit
inside it), lasts for hundreds of years.
Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as it receives from the Sun. Perhaps this is primeval
20) heat or beat generated by the continued gravitational contraction of the planet. Another
starlike characteristic of Jupiter is its sixteen natural satellites, which, like a miniature model
of the Solar System, decrease in density with distance—from rocky moons close to Jupiter
to icy moons farther away. If Jupiter were about 70 times more massive, it would have
become a star, Jupiter is the best-preserved sample of the early solar nebula, and with its
satellites, might contain the most important clues about the origin of the Solar System.


29. The word “attained” in line 4 is closest in
meaning to
(A) attempted
(B) changed
(C) lost
(D) reached

30. The word “flamed” in line 5 is closest in
meaning to
(A) burned
(B) divided
(C) fallen
(D) grown

31. The word “they” in line 6 refers to
(A) nuclear reactions
(B) giant planets
(C) terrestrial
(D) substances

32. According to the passage, hydrogen can
become a metallic-like liquid when it is
(A) extremely hot
(B) combined with helium
(C) similar atmospheres
(D) metallic cores


33. According to the passage, some scientists
believe Jupiter and Earth are similar in that
they both have
(A) solid surfaces
(B) similar masses
(C) similar atmospheres
(D) metallic cores

34. The clouds surrounding Jupiter are mostly
composed of
(A) ammonia
(B) helium
(C) hydrogen
(D) methane

35. It can be inferred from the passage that the
appearance of alternating bands circling Jupiter
is caused by
(A) the Great Red Spot
(B) heat from the Sun
(C) the planet’s fast rotation
(D) Storms from the planet’s Southern
Hemisphere

36. The author uses the word “puzzling” in line 15
to suggest that the Great Red Spot is
(A) the only spot of its kind
(B) not well understood
(C) among the largest of such spots
(D) a problem for the planet’s continued
existence

37. Paragraph 3 supports which of the following
conclusions?
(A) Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as the
Sun.
(B) Jupiter has a weaker gravitational force
than the other planets.
(C) Scientists believe that Jupiter was once a star.
(D) Scientists might learn about the beginning
of the Solar System by Studying Jupiter.

38. Why does the author mention primeval heat
(lines 19-20) ?
(A) To provide evidence that Jupiter is older
than the Sun
(B) To provide evidence that Jupiter is older
than the other planets
(C) To suggest a possible explanation for the
number of satellites that Jupiter has
(D) To suggest a possible source of the
quantity of heat that Jupiter gives off

39. According to the passage, Jupiter’s most
distant moon is
(A) the least dense
(B) the largest
(C) warm on the surface
(D) very rocky on the surface

40. Which of the following statements is supported
by the passage?
(A) If Jupiter had fewer satellites, it would be
easier for scientists to study the planet
itself.
(B) If Jupiter had had more mass, it would
have developed internal nuclear reactions.
(C) If Jupiter had been smaller, it would have
become a terrestrial planet.
(D) if Jupiter were larger, it would give off
much less heat


Questions 41-50
The tern “art deco” has come to encompass three distinct but related design trends
of the 1920’s and 1930’s. The first was what is frequently referred to as “zigzag
moderne” –the exotically ornamental style of such skyscrapers as the Chrysler Building
in New York City and related structures such as the Paramount Theater in Oakland,
5) California The word “zigzag” alludes to the geometric and stylized ornamentation of
zigzags, angular patterns, abstracted plant and animal motifs, sunbursts, astrological
imagery, formalized fountains, and related themes that were applied in mosaic relief.
and mural form to the exterior and interior of the buildings. Many of these buildings were
shaped in the ziggurat form, a design resembling an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower
10) that recedes in progressively smaller stages to the summit, creating a staircase-like effect.
The second manifestation of art deco was the 1930’s streamlined moderne” style—a
Futuristic-looking aerodynamic style of rounded corners and horizontal bands known as
“speed stripes.” In architecture, these elements were frequently accompanied by round
windows, extensive use of glass block, and flat rooftops.
15) The third style, referred to as cither “ international stripped classicism,” or simply
“ classical moderne,” also came to the forefront during the Depression, a period of severe
economic difficult in the 1930’s. This was amore conservative style, blending a
simplified modernistic style with a more austere form of geometric and stylized relief
sculpture and other ornament, including interior murals. May buildings in this style
20) were erected nationwide through government programs during the Depression .
Although art deco in its many forms was largely perceived as thoroughly modern,
it was strongly influenced by the decorative arts movements that immediately preceded
it. For example, like “art nouveau” (1890-1910), art deco also used plant motifs, but
regularized the forms into abstracted repetitive patterns rather than presenting them as
25) flowing, asymmetrical foliage, Like the Viennese craftspeople of the Wiener Werkstatte,
art deco designers worked with exotic materials, geometricized shapes, and colorfully
ornate patterns. Furthermore, like the artisans of the Arts and Crafts Movement in England
and the United States, art deep practitioners considered it their mission to transform the
domestic environment through well-designed furniture and household accessories.



41. What aspect of art deco does the passage
mainly discuss?
(A) The influence of art deco on the design of
furniture and household accessories
(B) Ways in which government programs
encouraged the development of art deco
(C) Architectural manifestations of art deco
during the 1920’s and 1930’s
(D) Reasons for the popularity of art deco in
New York and California

42. The word “encompass” in line 1 is closest in
meaning to
(A) separate
(B) include
(C) replace
(D) enhance

43. The phrase “The first” in line 2 refers to
(A) the term “art deco”
(B) design trends
(C) the 1920’s and 1930’s
(D) skyscrapers

44. In line 9, the author mentions “an ancient
Mesopotamian temple tower ” in order to
(A) describe the exterior shape of certain “art
deco” buildings
(B) explain the differences between ancient
and modern architectural steles
(C) emphasize the extent of architectural
advances
(D) argue for a return to more traditional
architectural design
45. The streamlined moderne style is characterized
by all of the following EXCEPT
(A) animal motifs
(B) flat roofs
(C) round windows
(D) “speed stripes”

46. The phrase “came to the forefront” in line 16 is
closest in meaning to
(A) grew in complexity
(B) went through a process
(C) changed its approach
(D) became important

47. According to the passage, which of the
following statements most accurately describes
the relationship between art deco and art
nouveau?
(A) They were art forms that competed with
each other for government support during
the Depression era.
(B) They were essentially the same art form.
(C) Art nouveau preceded art deco and
influenced it.
(D) Art deco became important in the United
States while art nouveau became popular in
England.

48. According to the passage, a building having an
especially ornate appearance would most
probably have been designed in the style of
(A) zigzag moderne
(B) streamlined moderne
(C) classical moderne
(D) the Arts and Crafts Movement

49. According to the passage, which of the
following design trends is known by more than
one name ?
(A) Zigzag moderne
(B) Streamlined moderne
(C) International stripped classicism
(D) Arts and Crafts Movement

50. The passage is primarily developed as
(A) the historical chronology of a movement
(B) a description of specific buildings that
became famous for their unusual beauty
(C) an analysis of various trends within an
artistic movement
(D) an argument of the advantages of one
artistic form over another


















2001年5月TOEFL考题

Section One: Listening Comprehension


1. (A) He has just recovered from the flu.
(B) He won’t be able to go to the play.
(C) He heard that the play isn’t very good.
(D) He has already seen the play.

2. (A) Share the place he’s renting.
(B) Avoid living near the campus.
(C) Apply for campus housing.
(D) Find an apartment soon.

3. (A) He wants to meet the woman after his
Spanish class.
(B) The woman should borrow someone else’s
workbook.
(C) He can take the woman to her class.
(D) The woman needs to return the workbook
before the class.

4. (A) She didn’t know Dr. Turner’s lecture would
be so interesting.
(B) She didn’t expect to have a quiz today.
(C) Dr. Turner often gives quizzes.
(D) The man should have prepared for the class.

5. (A) There are different kinds of folders.
(B) This decision requires careful thought.
(C) It doesn’t matter which color she uses.
(D) The color should suggest the content.

6. (A) She prepares her students well.
(B) She used to teach graduate courses.
(C) She isn’t qualified to teach organic
chemistry.
(D) Her students rarely attend graduate school.

7. (A) He decided not to sell the piano.
(B) He’s looking for a place to store the piano.
(C) No one has bought the piano.
(D) He hasn’t been able to find an inexpensive
piano yet.

8. (A) Tennis players often injure their backs.
(B) She hadn’t heard about the man’s problem.
(C) The man should have seen the doctor.
(D) She’ll check the man’s schedule as soon as
possible.



9. (A) He already knew about the problem.
(B) Someone has started fixing the washing
machine.
(C) No one complained about the washing
machine today.
(D) There’s nothing wrong with the washing
machine.

10. (A) It won’t take long to get to the station.
(B) It’ll be easy for him to give the woman a
ride to the station.
(C) He’ll ride on the train with the woman.

(D) He’s picking someone up from the station.

11. (A) I’ll out an application from.
(B) Apply for a different position.
(C) File the papers in the cabinet.
(D) Show her the advertisement from the
newspaper.

12. (A) Go with her to the airport.
(B) Talk to her for a short time.
(C) Find out when the plane is leaving.
(D) Make the phone call now.

13. (A) He can give the woman directions to
Chicago.
(B) He can drive the woman to Chicago.
(C) He can get a map for the woman.
(D) He can take the woman to the bookstore.

14. (A) He didn’t show his paintings at the exhibit.
(B) He didn’t see the paintings.
(C) He doesn’t understand Ted’s art.
(D) The exhibit was canceled.

15. (A) She has canceled her trip to lowa.
(B) The snowstorm is getting weaker.
(C) The man’s information isn’t accurate.
(D) They also may get a lot of snow.

16. (A) She needs more time to get ready for the
dinner.
(B) She thought the dinner was at another
time.
(C) She forgot about the plans she made for
dinner.
(D) She won’t be able to go to dinner.
17. (A) Take the class this semester.
(B) Get permission to take the class.
(C) Take the class over again.
(D) Register for the class next semester.

18. (A) He doesn’t like his new eyeglass frames.
(B) He didn’t get a haircut.
(C) He got his eyeglasses a long time ago.
(D) Several people have asked him about his
new eyeglass frames.

19. (A) The grades have been calculated
correctly.
(B) The woman will get the grade she
deserves.
(C) The woman received one of the highest
grades.
(D) The woman’s grade can’t be changed.

20. (A) She left the lecture for a few minutes.
(B) She was reading doing the lecture.
(C) She may have fallen asleep.
(D) She misunderstood the speaker’s last
points.

21. (A) The man hasn’t seen Joan recently.
(B) The man plans to call Joan soon.
(C) Joan doesn’t know what happened to the
book.
(D) Joan gave the book to the man.

22. (A) Why she should tell her students about
her plans.
(B) What he plans to do when he’s on
sabbatical.
(C) Why she can’t take a sabbatical next
semester.
(D) Why her students probably weren’t
surprised by her announcement.

23. (A) Put a little more pepper in the stew.
(B) Taste the stew to see if it needs paper.
(C) Check the recipe to see if they followed it
correctly.
(D) Serve the stew as it is.

24. (A) She wants to know where Tom heard the
stories.
(B) She’s surprised Tom was so serious last
night.
(C) Tom doesn’t usually tell funny stories.
(D) The stories probably weren’t true.

25. (A) He plans to sell the books to a collector.
(B) He won’t sell the books until he has read
them.
(C) The books probably aren’t worth a lot of
money.
(D) The woman can borrow any of the books
if she wants to.

26. (A) Leave with the man.
(B) Get ready to leave for the weekend.
(C) Stay where she is for the weekend.
(D) Meet the man later.

27. (A) The man is upset that the wasn’t invited to
the party.
(B) The man and the woman live in different
buildings.
(C) The woman’s friends were louder than she
expected they would be.
(D) The woman hadn’t intended to serve food
and beverages at the party.

28. (A) Mary hadn’t planned to attend the
seminar.
(B) Mary has been ill for several weeks.
(C) Mary forgot about the seminar.
(D) Mary wasn’t able to attend the seminar.

29. (A) Do more research before they meet.
(B) Meet several days before the presentation.
(C) Change the day of the presentation.
(D) Try to solve the problems before they
meet.

30. (A) She’ll talk to Judy about the problem.
(B) She may not be available later to help the
man.
(C) She isn’t sure if Judy can solve the
problem.
(D) The man will be able to solve the problem
himself.

31. (A) Places the man has visited.
(B) A paper the woman is writing for a class.
(C) School activities they enjoy.
(D) The woman’s plans for the summer.

32. (A) She has never been to Gettysburg.
(B) She took a political science course.
(C) Her family still goes on vacation together.
(D) She’s interested in the United States Civil
War.

33. (A) Why her parents wanted to go to
Gettysburg.
(B) Why her family’s vacation plans changed
ten years ago.
(C) Where her family went for a vacation ten
years ago.
(D) When her family went on their last
vacation.

34. (A) It’s far from where she lives.
(B) Her family went there without her.
(C) She doesn’t know a lot about it.
(D) She’s excited about going there.

35. (A) A catalog mailed to the man.
(B) The woman’s catalog order.
(C) The history of mail-order catalogs.
(D) A comparison of two kinds of catalogs.

36. (A) She wants to learn about Richard Sears.
(B) She is helping the man with his
assignment.
(C) She needs to buy a filing cabinet.
(D) She wants to order some textbooks.

37. (A) Teachers.
(B) Farmers.
(C) Students.
(D) Laborers.

38. (A) As textbooks.
(B) As fuel.
(C) As newspapers.
(D) As art.

39. (A) Taxes on factory goods rose.
(B) Some people lost their farms.
(C) Shipping prices rose.
(D) some families lost their businesses.

40. (A) Problems with pesticides.
(B) Characteristics of one type of falcon.
(C) Migratory patterns of birds.
(D) Tracking systems for animals.

41. (A) It flying speed.
(B) Its keen hearing.
(C) It size.
(D) Its aggressiveness.

42. (A) By radar.
(B) By airplane.
(C) By direct observation.
(D) By satellite.

43. (A) The types of instruments used in bebop
music.
(B) The social setting in which bebop music
developed.
(C) How two styles of jazz music influenced
each other
(D) The influence of bebop music on the
United States economy during the 1940’s.

44. (A) They didn’t use singers.
(B) They gave free concerts.
(C) They performed in small nightclubs.
(D) They shortened the length of their
performances.

45. (A) To discuss one way it impacted jazz music.
(B) To explain why the government reduced
some taxes.
(C) To describe a common theme in jazz
music.
(D) To discuss the popularity of certain jazz
bands.

46. (A) The music contained strong political
messages.
(B) The music had a steady beat that people
could dance to.
(C) The music included sad melodies.
(D) The music contained irregular types of
rhythms.

47. (A) The increase in beachfront property value.
(B) An experimental engineering project.
(C) The erosion of coastal areas
(D) How to build seawalls.

48. (A) To protect beachfront property.
(B) To reduce the traffic on beach roads.
(C) To provide privacy for homeowners.
(D) To define property limits.

49. (A) By sending water directly back to sea with
great force.
(B) By reducing wave energy.
(C) By reducing beach width.
(D) By stabilizing beachfront construction.

50. (A) Protect roads along the shore.
(B) Build on beaches with seawalls.
(C) Add sand to beaches with seawalls.
(D) Stop building seawalls.

Section Two: Structure and Written Expression


1. The giant ragweed, or buffalo weed, grows ---.

(A) 18 feet up to high
(B) to high 18 feet up
(C) up to 18 feet high
(D) 18 feet high up to

2. Neptune is --- any planet except Pluto.
(A) to be far from the Sun
(B) far from the Sun being
(C) farther than the Sun is
(D) farther from the Sun than

3. Since prehistoric times, artists have arranged
paint on surfaces in ways --- their ideas about
people and the world.
(A) express
(B) that their expression of
(C) which, expressing
(D) that express

4. Except for certain microorganisms, --- need
oxygen to survive.
(A) of all living things
(B) all living things
(C) all are living things
(D) are all living things

5. Dubbing is used in filmmaking --- a new sound
track to a motion picture.
(A) which to add
(B) to add
(C) is adding that
(D) to add while

6. --- of green lumber may come from moisture in
the wood.
(A) More weight than half
(B) Of the weight, more than half
(C) The weight is more than half
(D) More than half of the weight

7. Archaeologists study ---- to trace ancient trade
routes because such tools are relatively rare, and
each occurrence has a slightly different chemical
composition.
(A) which obsidian tools
(B) obsidian tools
(C) how obsidian tools
(D) obsidian tools are

8. ---- the hamster’s basic diet is vegetarian, some
hamsters also eat insects.
(A) Despite
(B) Although
(C) Regardless of
(D) Consequently

9. The Navajo Indians of the southwestern United
States --- for their sand painting, also called dry
painting.
(A) noted
(B) are noted
(C) to be noted
(D) have noted

10. In 1784, the leaders of what would later
become the state of Virginia gave up --- to the
territory that later became five different
Midwestern states.
(A) any claim
(B) when the claim
(C) to claim
(D) would claim

11. ---- one after another, parallel computers

 perform groups of operations at the same time.
(A) Conventional computers, by handling tasks
(B) Since tasks being handled by conventional
computers
(C) Whereas conventional computers handle
tasks
(D) While tasks handled by conventional
computers

12. The Liberty Bell, formerly housed in
Independence Hall, --- in Philadelphia, was
moved to a separate glass pavilion in 1976.
(A) which a historic building
(B) a historic building which
(C) was a historic building
(D) a historic building

13. Fossils, traces of dead organisms found in the
rocks of Earth’s crust, reveal --- at the time the
rocks were formed.
(A) what was like
(B) was like life
(C) what life was like
(D) life was like

14. Although the huge ice masses ---- glaciers
move slowly, they are a powerful erosive force
in nature.
(A) call them
(B) are called
(C) to call
(D) called

15. The soybean contains vitamins, essential
minerals, --- high percentage of protein.
(A) a
(B) and a
(C) since a
(D) of which a



16. A gene is a biological unit of information who directs the activity of a cell or organism during its
A B C D
lifetime.
17. The flowering of African American talent in literature, music, and art in the 1920’s in New York City
A B C
became to know as the Harlem Renaissance.
D
18. The symptoms of pneumonia, a lung infection, include high fever, chest pain, breathing difficult, and
A B C D
coughing.
19. The rapid grow of Boston during the mid-nineteenth century coincided with a large influx of
A B C
European immigrants.D
20. In 1908 Olive Campbell started writing down folk songs by rural people in the southern Appalachian
A B C
mountains near hers home.
D
21.The thirteen stripes of the United States flag represent the original thirteen states of the Union, which
A B C
they all were once colonies of Britain.
D
22. In 1860, more as 90 percent of the people of Indiana lived rural areas, with only a few cities having a
A B C
population exceeding 10,000.
D
23.Gravitation keeps the Moon in orbit around Earth and the planets other of the solar system in orbit
A B C D
around the Sun.

24. Photograph was revolutionized in 1831 by the introduction of the collodion process for making glass
A B C D
negatives.
25. After flax is washed, dry, beaten, and combed, fibers are obtained for use in making fabric.
A B C D
26. A fever is caused which blood cells release proteins called pyrogens, raising the body’s temperature.
A B C D
27. Because of various gift-giving holidays, most stores clothing in the United Sates do almost as much
A B
business in November and December as they do in the other ten months combined.
C D
28.The United States National Labor Relations Board is authorized to investigation allegations of unfair
A B
labor practices on the part of either employers or employees.
C D
29.The Great Potato Famine in Ireland in the 1840’s caused an unprecedented numbers of people from
A B C
Ireland to immigrate to the United States.
D
30.The particles comprising a given cloud are continually changing, as new ones are added while others
A B
are taking away by moving air.
C D
31.Political parties in the United States help to coordinate the campaigns of their members and organizes A B C
the statewide and national conventions that mark election years.
D
32.The lemur is an unusual animal belonging to the same order than monkey’s and apes.
A B C D
33.Chese may be hard or soft, depending on the amount of water left into it and the character of
A B C D
the cuting.
34.The carbon-are lamp, a very bright electric lamp used for spotlights, consists of two carbon
A B
electrodes with a high-current are passing between it.
C D
35. At first the poems of E.E. Cummings gained notoriety to their idiosyncratic punctuation and
A B
typography, but they have gradually been recognized for their lyric power as well.
C D
36.The mechanism of human thought and recall, a subject only partly understood by scientists, is
A B C
extraordinary complicated.
D
37.While the process of photosynthesis in green plants, light energy is captured and used
A B
to convert water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and organic compounds.
C D
38.The globe artichoke was known as a delicacy at least 2,500 years ago, and records of its
A B C
cultivation date from fifteenth century.
D
39. Humans do not constitute the only species endowed with intelligence: the higher animals also
A B C
have considerably problem-solving abilities.
D
40. Many of species of milkweed are among the most dangerous of poisonous plants, while others
A B C
have little, if any, toxicity.
D



Questions 1-10
In the early 1800’s, over 80 percent of the United States labor force was engaged
in agriculture. Sophisticated technology and machinery were virtually nonexistent.
People who lived in the cities and were not directly involved in trade often participated
Line in small cottage industries making handcrafted goods. Others cured meats, silversmiths, candle
5) or otherwise produced needed goods and commodities. Blacksmiths, silversmiths, candle
makers, and other artisans worked in their homes or barns, relying on help of family
Perhaps no single phenomenon brought more widespread and lasting change to the
United States society than the rise of industrialization. Industrial growth hinged on several
10） economic factors. First, industry requires an abundance of natural resources, especially
coal, iron ore, water, petroleum, and timber-all readily available on the North American
continent. Second, factories demand a large labor supply. Between the 1870’s and the
First World War (1914-1918), approximately 23 million immigrants streamed to the
United States, settled in cities, and went to work in factories and mines. They also helped
15）build the vast network of canals and railroads that crisscrossed the continent and linked
important trade centers essential to industrial growth.
Factories also offered a reprieve from the backbreaking work and financial
unpredictability associated with farming. Many adults, poor and disillusioned with
farm life, were lured to the cities by promises of steady employment, regular paychecks,
20) increased access to goods and services, and expanded social opportunities. Others were
pushed there when new technologies made their labor cheap or expendable; inventions
such as steel plows and mechanized harvesters allowed one farmhand to perform work
that previously had required several, thus making farming capital-intensive rather than
labor-intensive.
25） The United States economy underwent a massive transition and the nature of work
was permanently altered. Whereas cottage industries relied on a few highly skilled craft
workers who slowly and carefully converted raw materials into finished products from
start to finish, factories relied on specialization. While factory work was less creative and
more monotonous, it was also more efficient and allowed mass production of goods at
less expense.


1.What aspect of life in the United States does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The transition from an agricultural to an
industrial economy
(B) The inventions that transformed life in the
nineteenth century
(C) The problems associated with the earliest
factories
(D) The difficulty of farm life in the nineteenth
century
2. Blacksmiths, silversmiths, and candle makers are mentioned in lines 5-6 as examples of
artisans who
(A) maintained their businesses at home
(B) were eventually able to use sophisticated
technology
(C) produced unusual goods and commodities
(D) would employ only family members

3. The phrase “hinged on” in line 9 is closest in meaning to
(A) recovered from
(B) depended on
(C) started on
(D) contributed to

4. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a reason for the industrial growth that occurred in the United States before 1914?
(A)The availability of natural resources found only in the United States
(B) The decrease in number of farms resulting
from technological advances
(C) The replacement of canals and railroads by
other forms of transportation
(D) The availability of a large immigrant work
force

5. The word “lured” in line 19 is closest in meaning to
(A) attracted
(B) assigned
(C) restricted
(D) attached

6. The word “Others” in line 20 refers to other
(A) adults
(B) promises
(C) goods and services
(D) social opportunities
7.The word “expendable” in line 21 is closest in
meaning to
(A) nonproductive
(B) unacceptable
(C) nonessential
(D) unprofitable

8. It can be inferred from the passage that
industrialization affected farming in that
industrialization
(A) increased the price of farm products
(B) limited the need for new farm machinery
(C) created new and interesting jobs on farms
(D) reduced the number of people willing to do
farm work

9.What does the author mean when stating that
certain inventions made farming
“capital-intensive rather than labor-intensive”
(lines 23-24)?
(A) Workers had to be trained to operate the new
machines.
(B) Mechanized farming required more capital
and fewer laborers.
(C) The new inventions were not helpful for all
farming activities.
(D) Human labor could still accomplish as much
work as the first machines.

10. According to the passage, factory workers
differed from craft workers in that factory
workers
(A) were required to be more creative
(B) worked extensively with raw materials
(C) changed jobs frequently
(D) specialized in one aspect of the finished
product only

Question 11-20
Molting is one of the most involved processes of a bird’s annual life cycle.
Notwithstanding preening and constant care, the marvelously intricate structure of a bird’s
Feather inevitably wears out. All adult birds molt their feathers at least once a year, and
Line upon close observation, one can recognize the frayed, ragged appearance of feathers that
5) are nearing the end of their useful life. Two distinct processes are involved in molting.
The first step is when the old, worn feather is dropped, or shed. The second is when a new
feather grows in its place. When each feather has been shed and replaced, then the molt
can be said to be complete. This, however, is an abstraction that often does not happen:
incomplete, overlapping, and arrested molts are quite common.
10) Molt requires that a bird find and process enough protein to rebuild approximately
one-third of its body weight. It is not surprising that a bird in heavy molt often seems
listless and unwell. But far from being random, molt is controlled by strong evolutionary
forces that have established an optimal time and duration. Generally, molt occurs at the
time of least stress on the bird. Many songbirds, for instance, molt in late summer, when
15) the hard work of breeding is done but the weather is still warm and food still plentiful.
This is why the woods in late summer often seem so quiet, when compared with the
Exuberant choruses of spring.
Molt of the flight feathers is the most highly organized part of the process. Some species,
for example, begin by dropping the outermost primary feathers on each side (to retain
20) balance in the air) and wait until the replacement feathers are about one-third grown before
shedding the next outermost, and so on. Others always start with the innermost primary
feathers and work outward. Yet other species begin in the middle and work outward on both
weeks while the replacement feathers grow.


11.The passage mainly discusses how
(A) birds prepare for breeding
(B) bird feathers differ from species
(C) birds shed and replace their feathers
(D) birds are affected by seasonal changes

12.The word “Notwithstanding” in line 2 is closest
in meaning to
(A) despite
(B) because of
(C) instead of
(D) regarding

13.The word “intricate” in line 2 is closest in
meaning to
(A) regular
(B) complex
(C) interesting
(D) important

14.The word “random” in line 12 is closest in
meaning to
(A) unfortunate
(B) unusual
(C) unobservable
(D) unpredictable

15.The word “optimal” in line 13 is closest in
meaning to
(A) slow
(B) frequent
(C) best
(D) early
16.Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a
reason that songbirds molt in the late
summer?
(A) Fewer predators are in the woods.
(B) The weathers is still warm.
(C) The songbirds have finished breeding.
(D) Food is still available.

17. Some birds that are molting maintain balance
during flight by
(A) constantly preening and caring for their
remaining feathers
(B) dropping flight feathers on both sides at the
same time
(C) adjusting the angle of their flight to
compensate for lost feathers
(D) only losing one-third of their feathers

18.The word “Others” in line 21 refers to
(A) ducks
(B) sides
(C) species
(D) flight feathers

19.The author discusses ducks in order to provide
an example of birds that
(A) grow replacement feathers that are very long
(B) shed all their wing feathers at one time
(C) keep their innermost feathers
(D) shed their outermost feathers first

20. It can inferred from the discussion about ducks
that the molting of their flight feathers takes.
(A) a year
(B) a season
(C) several months
(D) a few weeks


Question 21-30
The Harlem Renaissance, a movement of the 1920’s, marked the twentieth century’s
first period of intense activity by African Americans in the field of literature, art, and
music in the United States. The philosophy of the movement combined realism, ethnic
Line consciousness, and Americanism. Encouraged by the example of certain Americans
5) of European descent such as Thomas Eakins, Robert Henri, and George Luks, who had
included persons of African descent in their paintings as serious studies rather than as
trivial or sentimental stereotypes, African American artists of this period set about
creating a new portrayal of themselves and their lives in the United States. As they began
to strive for social and cultural independence. Their attitudes toward themselves changed,
10) and, to some extent, other segments of American society began to change their attitudes
toward them. Thus, thought the Harlem Renaissance was a short-lived movement, its
impact on American art and culture continues to the present.
The district in New York City know as Harlem was the capital of the movement.
In 1925 an issue of Survey Graphic magazine devoted exclusively to Harlem and edited
15) by philosopher Alain Locke became the manifesto of the African American artistic
movement. Locke strongly suggested that individuals, while accepting their Americanism,
take pride in their African ancestral arts and urged artists to look to Africa for substance
and inspiration. Far from advocating a withdrawal from American culture, as did some of
his contemporaries, Locke recommended a cultural pluralism through which artists could
20) enrich the culture of America. African Americans were urged by Locke to be collaborators
and participators with other Americans in art, literature, and music; and at the same time
to preserve, enhance, and promote their own cultural heritage.
Artists and intellectuals from many parts of the United States and the Caribbean had
Been attracted to Harlem by the pulse and beat of its unique and dynamic culture. From
25) this unity created by the convergence of artists from various social and geographical
backgrounds came a new spirit, which, particularly in densely populated Harlem, was
to result in greater group awareness and self-determination. African American graphic
artists took their place beside the poets and writers of the Harlem Renaissance and
carried on efforts to increase and promote the visual arts.


21.What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) African American paintings in the 1920’s
(B) An arts movement of the 1920’s
(C) The influence of Alain Locke on African
American art
(D) Some ways in which African culture
inspired American literature, art and music
22. According to the passage, Tomas Eakins,
Robert Henri, and George Luks were important
because of
(A) the philosophical contributions they made to
the Harlem Renaissance
(B) their development of a new style of African
American art
(C) they way in which they depicted African
Americans in their paintings
(D) their independence from European artistic
traditions
23. The word “them” in line 11 refers to
(A) Americans of European descent
(B) paintings
(C) African American artists
(D) attitudes

24. According to the passage, African American
artists of the 1920’s differed from earlier
African American artists in terms of their
feelings about
(A) themselves
(B) other artists
(C) their impact on American art
(D) stereotypes

25.The word “urged” in line 17 is closest in
meaning to
(A) prepared
(B) defined
(C) permitted
(D) encouraged

26. Alain Locke believed all of the following to be
important to the African American artistic
movement EXCEPT
(A) pride in African art
(B) cultural pluralism
(C) collaboration with other artists
(D) withdrawal from American culture

27. In mentioning “the pulse and beat” (line24) of
Harlem during the 1920’s, the author is
characterizing the district as one that
(A) depended greatly on its interaction with
other parts of the city
(B) grew economically in a short period of time
(C) was an exciting place to be
(D) was in danger of losing population

28.The word “convergence” in line 25 is closest in
meaning to
(A) gathering
(B) promotion
(C) expression
(D) influence

29. According to the passage, all of the following
were true of Harlem in the 1920’s EXCEPT:
(A) Some Caribbean artists and intellectuals
lived there.
(B) It attracted people from various regions of
United States.
(C) It was one of the most expensive
neighborhoods in New York City.
(D) It was a unique cultural center.

30.The phrase “carried on” in line 29 is closest in
meaning to
(A) continued
(B) praised
(C) transformed
(D) connected




Questions 31-40
Ethology is concerned with the study of adaptive, or survival,value of behavior and its
Evolutionary history. Ethological theory began to be applied to research on children in the
1960’s but has become even more influential today. The origins of ethology can be traced
Line to the work of Darwin. Its modern foundations were laid by two European zoologists,
5) Konrad Lorenz and Niko Tinbergen.
Watching the behaviors diverse animal species in their natural habitats, Lorenz, and
Tinbergen observed behavior patterns that promote survival. The most well-known of these
is imprinting, the carly following behavior of certain baby birds that ensures that the young
will stay close to their mother and be fed and protected from danger. Imprinting takes place
10) during an early, restricted time period of development. If the mother goose is not present
during this time, but an object resembling her in important features is, young goslings may
imprint on it instead.
Observations of imprinting led to major concept that has been applied in child
Development” the critical period. It refers to a limited times span during which the child is
15) biologically prepared to acquire certain adaptive behaviors but needs the support of suitably
stimulating environment. Many researchers have conducted studies to find out whether
complex congnitive and social behaviors must be learned during restricted time periods.
for example, if children are deprived of adequate food or physical and social stimulation
during the early years of life, will their intelligence be permanently impaired? If language
20) is not mastered during the preschool years, is the child’s capacity to acquire it reduced?
Inspired by observations of imprinting, in 1969 the British psychoanalyst John Bowlby
applied ethological theory to the understanding of the relationship between an infant and
its parents. He argued that attach ment behaviors of babies, such as smiling, babbling,
grasping, and crying, are built-in social signals that encourage the parents to approach,
25) care for, and interact with the baby. By keeping a parent near, these behaviors help ensure
that the baby will be fed, protected from danger, and provided with the stimulation and
affection necessary for healthy growth. The development of attachment in human infants
is a lengthy process involving changes in psychological structures that lead to a deep
affectional tie between parent and baby.


31.What was Darwin’s contribution to ethology?
(A) Darwin improved on the original principles
of ethology.
(B) Darwin was the professor who taught
Lorenz and Tinbergen.
(C) Darwin’s work provided the basis for
ethology.
(D) Darwin was the first person to apply
ethological theory to children.

32.The word “diverse” in line 6 is closest in
meaning to
(A) small
(B) varied
(C) wild
(D) particular
33.The word “ensures” in line 8 is closest in
meaning to
(A) guarantees
(B) proves
(C) teaches
(D) assumes

34. According to the passage, if a mother goose is
not present during the time period when
imprinting takes place, which of the following
will most likely occur?
(A) The gosling will not imprint on any object.
(B) The gosling may not find a mate when it
matures.
(C) The mother will later imprint on the gosling.
(D) The gosling may imprint on another object.
35.The word “it” in line 12 refers to
(A) development
(B) goose
(C) time
(D) object

36.The word “suitably” in line 15 is closest in
meaning to
(A) willingly
(B) moderately
(C) appropriately
(D) emotionally

37.The author mentions all of the following as
attachment behaviors of human infants
EXCEPT

(A) grasping
(B) crying
(C) eating
(D) smiling

38.According to the passage, attachment behaviors
of infants are intended to
(A) get the physical, emotional and social needs
of the infant met
(B) allow the infant to become imprinted on
objects that resemble the parent
(C) provide the infant with a means of
self-stimulation
(D) prepare the infant to cope with separation

39.The phrase “affectional tie” in line 29 is closest
in meaning to
(A) cognitive development
(B) emotional attachment
(C) psychological need
(D) behavioral change

40. It can be inferred from the passage that
ethological theory assumes that
(A) to learn about human behavior only human
subjects should be studied
(B) failure to imprint has no influence on
inteligence
(C) the notion of critical periods applies only to
animals
(D) there are similarities between animal and
human behavior


Questions 41-50

There are only a few clues in the rock record about climate in the Proterozoic con.
Much of our information about climate in the more recent periods of geologic history
comes from the fossil record, because we have a reasonably good understanding of
Line the types of environment in which many fossil organisms flourished. The scarce fossils
5) of the Proterozoic, mostly single-celled bacteria, provide little evidence in this regard.
However, the rocks themselves do include the earliest evidence for glaciation, probably
a global ice age.
The inference that some types of sedimentary rocks are the result of glacial activity
is based on the principle of uniformitarianism, which posits that natural processes now
10) at work on and within the Earth operated in the same manner in the distant past. The
deposits associated with present-day glaciers have been well studied, and some of their characteristics are quite distinctive. In 2.3-billion-year-old rocks in Canada near Lake
Huron (dating from the early part of the Proterozoic age), there are thin laminae of
fine-grained sediments that resemble varves, the annual layers of sediment deposited in
15) glacial lakes. Typically, present-day varves show two-layered annual cycle, one layer
corresponding to the rapid ice melting and sediment transport of the summer season, and
the other, finer-grained, layer corresponding to slower winter deposition. Although it is
not easy to discern such details in the Proterozoic examples, they are almost certainly
glacial varves. These fine-grained, layered sediments even contain occasional large
20) pebbles or “dropstones,” a characteristic feature of glacial environments where coarse
material is sometimes carried on floating ice and dropped far from its source, into
otherwise very fine grained sediment. Glacial sediments of about the same age as those
in Canada have been found in other parts of North America and in Africa, India, and
Europe. This indicates that the glaciation was global, and that for a period of time in
25) the early Proterozoic the Earth was gripped in an ice age.
Following the early Proterozoic glaciation, however, the climate appears to have
Been fairly benign for a very long time. There is no evidence for glaciation for the
Next 1.5 billion years or so. Then, suddenly, the rock record indicates a series of
Glacial episodes between about 850 and 600 million year ago, near the end of the
Proterozoic con.


41.Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) How patterns in rock layers have been used to construct theories about the climate of the Proterozoic age
(B) What some rare fossils indicate about glacial conditions during the late Proterozoic age
(C) The varying characteristics of Proterozoic glacial varves in different parts of the world

(D) The number of glacial episodes that the Earth has experienced since the Proterozoic age

42. According to the passage, the fossil record of the Proterozoic con is
(A) highly regarded because it preserves the remains of many kinds of organisms
(B) less informative than the fossil record of more recent periods
(C) very difficult to interpret due to damage from bacteria
(D) more useful to researchers than other aspects of the rock record

43.The word “scarce” in line 4 is closest in meaning to
(A) ancient
(B) tiny
(C) available
(D) rare

44. It can be inferred from the passage that the principle of uniformitarianism indicates that
(A) similar conditions produce similar rock formations
(B) rock layers in a given region remain undisturbed over time
(C) different kinds of sedimentary rocks may
(D) each continent has its own distinctive pattern of sediment layers

45. The word “resemble” in line 14 is closest in
meaning to
(A) result from
(B) penetrate
(C) look like
(D) replace have similar origins


46. According to the passage, the layers in varves are primarily formed by
(A) fossilized bacteria
(B) pieces of ancient dropstones
(C) a combination of ancient and recent sediments
(D) annual cycles of sediment transport and deposition

47. The phrase “the other” in line 17 refers to another
(A) annual cycle
(B) glacial lake
(C) layer of sediment
(D) season

48. According to the passage, the presence of dropstones indicates that
(A) the glacial environment has been unusually server
(B) the fine-grained sediment has built up very slowly
(C) there has been a global ice age
(D) coarse rock material has been carried great distances

49. Why does the author mention Canada, North America, Africa, India, and Europe in lines 23-24?
(A) To demonstrate the global spread of dropstones
(B) To explain the principles of varve formation
(C) To provide evidence for the theory that there was a global ice age in the early Proterozoic eon
(D) To illustrate the varied climatic changes of the Proterozoic con in different parts of the globe

50. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
(A) fossil record (line 3)
(B) laminae (line 13)
(C) varves (line14)
(D) glacial episodes (line 29)